How ridiculous, unreasonable and abusive may contracts become before they are deemed not enforceable or illegal?
Imagine a fictional world where there are only 3 restaurant chains, let's call them, I don't know, American, United and Delta.
Furthermore, some cities are almost exclusively served by only one of these restaurants.
So I use the app of one of these restaurant to self-order take-out food.
I want a chicken sandwich with fries. But I see that they have a combo, chicken sandwich with fries and soda, that costs less than if I order just the sandwich and the fries separately. SO I order that.
I go to pick up the food and on my way out they see me dropping the whole soda in the trash.
So they stop me and inform me that, since I didn't drink the soda, they charged me for the actual product I consumed (the more expensive sandwich and fries separately, not the cheaper combo) and, because I did that intentionally in violation of of the clause 341.14.j) in the page 27 of their terms and conditions, they are banning me for 1 year from the whole chain. (And, bu the way, the other 2 restaurant chains have a similar clause).
How is that not illegal? How is no authority stopping the abuse? (other than lobby and corruption)
Imagine a fictional world where there are only 3 restaurant chains, let's call them, I don't know, American, United and Delta.
Furthermore, some cities are almost exclusively served by only one of these restaurants.
So I use the app of one of these restaurant to self-order take-out food.
I want a chicken sandwich with fries. But I see that they have a combo, chicken sandwich with fries and soda, that costs less than if I order just the sandwich and the fries separately. SO I order that.
I go to pick up the food and on my way out they see me dropping the whole soda in the trash.
So they stop me and inform me that, since I didn't drink the soda, they charged me for the actual product I consumed (the more expensive sandwich and fries separately, not the cheaper combo) and, because I did that intentionally in violation of of the clause 341.14.j) in the page 27 of their terms and conditions, they are banning me for 1 year from the whole chain. (And, bu the way, the other 2 restaurant chains have a similar clause).
How is that not illegal? How is no authority stopping the abuse? (other than lobby and corruption)
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